limits - Can anything equal DNE? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Apr 14, 2016 · Considering this, it would make more linguistically and notationally valid sense to replace ‘ $=\mathtt{DNE}$ ’ with ‘ $\:\mathtt{DNE}$ ’ (omitting, or for typographic clarity instead …
limits - Is zero multiplied by does not exist equal to zero ...
Feb 5, 2022 · $\lim \limits_{x \to \infty} \sin{(2x)}$ = DNE. So, it went. $ 0 \cdot DNE$ Is this always the case, especially for transcendental functions like trigonometric functions? If $ 0 …
Which is correct: negative infinity or 'does not exist'?
$\begingroup$ I don't think DNE is unambiguously wrong, as there's no standard definition for what it means. In many calculus classes, a limit is said not to exist if there is no real limit, and …
Multivariable Calculus question, show limit of equation DNE
$\begingroup$ The question asks to show that the limit DNE. According to the rule you mentioned, it means that the denominator will reach $0$ faster than numerator, so that the equation DNE …
Relation between efq, DS, DNE, LEM - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Nov 3, 2024 · DNE $\implies$ LEM $\implies$ DS $\iff$ efq; LEM + DS $\implies$ DNE; But then, this means that LEM $\iff$ DNE, without any "explicit" need of efq, which refutes a convincing …
calculus - Prove f is continuous and that f' (0) DNE - Mathematics ...
Mar 1, 2016 · Prove f is continuous and that f'(0) DNE. Ask Question Asked 9 years, 1 month ago.
limits - Convergence, divergence and existence - Mathematics …
Jan 7, 2018 · Divergence means the limit doesn't exist. "Divergence to $\infty$" is a special case of divergence, and we sometimes say that the limit exists in those cases, but strictly speaking …
natural deduction - Is there a proof of LEM implying DNE that …
Sep 25, 2017 · Is there a proof not using $\\bot\\vdash\\varphi$, proving that Law of The Excluded Middle implies Double Negation Elimination in natural deduction? The ones I've seen would …
The difference between indeterminate and undefined operation.
Aug 18, 2015 · This webpage explains the difference between indeterminate and undefined operations in mathematics.
I have learned that 1/0 is infinity, why isn't it minus infinity?
$\begingroup$ @Swivel But 0 does equal -0. Even under IEEE-754. The only reason IEEE-754 makes a distinction between +0 and -0 at all is because of underflow, and for +/- ∞, overflow.