
limit when zero divided by infinity - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Sep 11, 2015 · I know that limx→∞ f(x) = 0 lim x → ∞ f (x) = 0 and limx→∞ h(x) = ∞ lim x → ∞ h (x) = ∞ So at the and I have 0∞ 0 ∞. I know that infinity is not a real number but I am not sure if the limit is indeterminate. (Also, there are people who are saying contradictory things on internet) I know very well that it is not possible to use Hopital's rule. My guess is that : As we ...
Is $0^\\infty$ indeterminate? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
May 29, 2015 · Is a constant raised to the power of infinity indeterminate? I am just curious. Say, for instance, is $0^\\infty$ indeterminate? Or is it only 1 raised to the infinity that is?
When 0 is multiplied with infinity, what is the result?
Because multiplying by infinity is the equivalent of dividing by 0. When you allow things like that in proofs you end up with nonsense like 1 = 0. Multiplying 0 by infinity is the equivalent of 0/0 which is undefined.
Why is $\infty\times 0$ indeterminate? - Mathematics Stack …
In particular, infinity is the same thing as "1 over 0", so "zero times infinity" is the same thing as "zero over zero", which is an indeterminate form. Your title says something else than "infinity times zero".
soft question - Why is $\infty \cdot 0$ not clearly equal to $0 ...
Mar 25, 2011 · To reply to user 3302, Your wrong. lim [as x->0]f (x)=1/x does not exist, if you approach it from the right you get +infinity and if you approach it from the left you get -infinity, therefore your answer does not exist.
What is infinity to the power zero - Mathematics Stack Exchange
As for your actual question, ∑∞ i=1k1/k is infinite since you are adding a non-zero constant (k1/k) to itself an infinite number of times. If we change the summation to ∑∞ i=1i1/i, this is still infinite as although the terms are not constant, each of them is greater than 1 and so the series is greater than 1 + 1 + 1 + ⋯, therefore infinite. As to why each term is greater than 1, the ...
Indeterminate form of infinity over 0? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Jun 6, 2018 · If f(x) f (x) approaches 0 0 from below, then the limit of p(x) f(x) p (x) f (x) is negative infinity. If f(x) f (x) keeps switching signs as it approaches zero, then the limit of the quotient fails to exist.
Why is 0 multiplied by infinity considered an indeterminate form?
Apr 27, 2006 · 0 * infinity What is up? I read that it this expression is called an "indeterminate form." Why isn't zero multiplied by infinity equal to zero? Even if infinity is really big, if there are zero amounts of infinity, that would make zero. How …
Is Infinity x 0 Equal to Zero? - Physics Forums
Jan 25, 2017 · What is infinity times zero? Isn't it zero? I mean, infinity times zero is the same as zero an infinite amount of times, and adding zero infinitely would give zero because even though zero is always being added, this process is the same as nothing ever being added to zero.
Why Zero divided by Zero is undefined and not Infinity
Infinity is not a number. When we divide one number by another we must get, again, a number; say, real numbers. Since infinity is not a number, it does not make sense to say 0/0 = infinity. Think of a/b to be the number c such that a=bc. Now you are proposing that c = infinity is a solution. However, this not so simply because infinity is not a number.